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Subjective Pronouns (I, we, you, etc.)

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  • Subjective Pronouns (I, we, you, etc.)

    Pronouns can be used as the subject of a sentence. "I" and "we" do not specify a gender. The others, however, come in masculine and feminine forms:




    we (m. & f.)


    I (m. & f.)


    you (m.)


    you (m.)


    you (f.)


    you (f.)


    they (m.)




    they (f.)




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    Last edited by hyssop; 02-06-2002, 12:00 AM.

  • #2
    Shalom brother Hyssop,
    Yah be with you dear brother.

    When you get a chance, would you take a look at the scripture >

    Psalm 101:2
    I will behave myself wisely in a perfect way.
    O when "wilt thou come" unto me?
    I will walk within my house with a perfect heart.

    (T,B,W,A): Could this word (come) with a tau at the beginng be
    "thou wilt come"? as opposed to "wilt thou come"?
    Is there any hebrew "rule" that I am not aware of that causes the Tau at the
    beginning to translate in this particualar scripture; "wilt thou come"?

    What I'm asking is: Is there any "reason" or rule in Hebrew that would "stop" the
    2nd. sentence above to be translated: "O when thou wilt come unto me".

    In which case the scripture would read;

    "I will behave myself wisely in a perfect way. O when thou wilt come unto me, I
    will walk within my house with a perfect heart."

    For I have noticed that usually the "tau" at beginning of a word is translated with
    the "thou" first, and not the adverb. (i think adverb?) > "wilt, shalt".

    Gen 15:15 same word: "thou shalt go" not > "shalt thou go"
    Gen 24:41 "thou comest" 27:33 "thou camest" in fact almost "all" are
    translated with the "thou shalt" / thou wilt / and not "shalt thou" or "wilt thou".
    but would appreciate some confirmation that I am not missing something
    concerning the scripture in question.

    Thank You Hyssop, I truly thank Yah for you.

    "At that day
    shall a man look to his Maker,
    and his eyes shall have respect
    to the Holy One of Israel."
    Isaiah 17:7


    • #3
      Shalom d',

      The Hebrew word, aAb'T, used in Ps 101:2 is the future tense for of the verb "to come" (root letters: awb). Literally, the word can mean: "you (m.s.) will come" or "she will come." There is no Hebraic difference between the two forms of the verb; one has to look at the verb in context to determine the pronoun to use. Since David is speaking to Yah, one could determine the word (by itself) to mean: "you (m.s.) will come."

      However, one must also look at the word in context to determine if the word means: "you (m.s.) will come" or "will (m.s.) you come"; there is no Hebraic difference (looking at the one word) between the statement and the question.

      The key word to determining whether or not the sentence is a question is: y;t'm = the Hebrew word translated "when." This word (Strong's H4970) means: "when?" or "how long?" I don't think that there can be any doubt that the sentence is a question: "When will you come to me?" If David wanted to say "When thou will come to me, I will walk . . ." he would have used a different word for "when."

      Just for your information:
      I wondered if it could be possible that David was referring to mercy or judgement in his question. Could he have been asking when mercy or judgement would come to him (remember, the sentence could be translated "When will she come to me?"). However, both mercy and judgement are masculine nouns, so David could not have been referring to them.

      Thanks for the question.