HaSatan And The Lie!

[Spying]

Hi Everyone,
Blessings to you through the resurrected Messiah Yahushua, the Renewed and Restored YAHWEH ELOHIM!

Shabbat Shalom!

In the statement below, Messiah Yahushua originally stated that the Devil is the Father of the Lie:

John 8:44
44 Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.

Now, let's take a look at one Greek language version of the above verse:

John 8:44
44 υμεις εκ πατρος του διαβολου εστε και τας επιθυμιας του πατρος υμων θελετε ποιειν εκεινος ανθρωποκτονος ην απ αρχης και εν τη αληθεια ουχ εστηκεν οτι ουκ εστιν αληθεια εν αυτω οταν λαλη το ψευδος εκ των ιδιων λαλει οτι ψευστης εστιν και ο πατηρ αυτου

Please allow me to translate the pertinent phrase above: "οταν λαλη το ψευδος"

"οταν" means "whenever". "λαλη" means "he speaks", and "το" is the definite article meaning "the". Of course, "το' is the definite article that goes with the noun "ψευδος" which is the Greek name for "lie".

Would anyone care to explain to me why the august King James Translators failed to translate the definite article with "ψευδος" and substituted the indefinite article "a" in its place?

Thanking anyone in advance that should take the time to give me an answer, I am,
Sincerely, Spying

[Spying]

Topic: The Indefinite Article In Biblical Greek

Hi Everyone,
Blessings to you through the resurrected Messiah Yahushua, the Renewed and Restored YAHWEH ELOHIM!

Everyone who has studied English should know that the indefinite article in the English language is either "a" or "an" depending upon the rules of grammar which govern their usage. Biblical Greek does not possess the indefinite article so it is entirely up to the translator to insert an "a" or an "an" before any Greek word which does not possess the definite article. Of course, the English word "the" is found in Biblical Greek. While I suppose that there exist exceptions to every rule of grammar, it is my humble opinion that whenever the definite article is found in a Greek language sentence or phrase, the definite article should not be translated with the English indefinite article "a" or "an".
Here is another important mistranslation by the KJV translators:

Romans 1:25
25 οιτινες μετηλλαξαν την αληθειαν του θεου εν τω ψευδει και εσεβασθησαν και ελατρευσαν τη κτισει παρα τον κτισαντα ος εστιν ευλογητος εις τους αιωνας αμην

I am going to embolden and underline every definite article (the) found in the above sentence. Here is my English translation of the above verse:

Romans 1:25
25 In that they exchanged the truth of the ELOHIM (God) with/by the lie, and worshipped and served the creation above the Creator, who is blessed into the ages. Amen.

And here is the KJV of the above verse:

Romans 1:25
25 Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.

Again, would anyone care to explain to me why the august King James Translators failed to translate the definite article with "ψευδει" and substituted the indefinite article "a" in its place?

Thanking anyone in advance that should take the time to give me an answer, I am,
Sincerely, Spying